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 Question No : 1

Assume you are the Test Manager for a new software release of an e-commerce

application.

The server farm consists of six servers providing different capabilities. Each capability is

provided through a set of web services.

The requirements specification document contains several SLAs

(Service Level Agreements) like the following:

SLA-001: 99.5 percent of all transactions shall have a response time less than five seconds

under a load of up-to 5000 concurrent users

The main objective is to assure that all the SLAs specified in the requirements specification

document will be met before system release. You decide to apply a risk-based testing

strategy and an early risk analysis confirms that performance is high risk. You can count on

a well-written requirements specification and on a model of the system behavior under

various load levels produced by the system architect.

Which of the following test activities would you expect to be the less important ones to

achieve the test objectives in this scenario?

K4 3 credits

A. Perform unit performance testing for each single web service

B. Monitor the SLAs after the system has been released into the production environment

C. Perform system performance testing, consisting of several performance testing

sessions, to verify if all the SLAs have been met

D. Perform static performance testing by reviewing the architectural model of the system

under various load levels

Answer: B

Question No : 2

Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as "lessonslearned"?

K2 1 credit

A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase

B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the

service desk team

C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and

problems of future projects

D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a

software product released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing

Answer: C

Question No : 3

During the follow-up phase the following conditions are checked:

X1. The code has been completely reviewed

X2. All the identified defects have been correctly fixed and the modified code has been

compiled successfully and run through all the static analyzers used by the project without

warnings and errors

X3. The modified code is available under the configuration management system with a new

version number for the specified CI

If these conditions are fulfilled then the review process terminates.

Which of the following characteristics of a formal review is missing in this description?

K2 1 credit

A. Defined entry and exit criteria

B. Checklists to be used by the reviewers

C. Deliverables such as reports, evaluation sheets or other review summary sheets

D. Metrics for reporting on the review effectiveness, efficiency, and progress

Answer: D

Question No : 4

You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows

wine vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell

special packages in their wine shops.

You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit

criteria for the system testinG.

EXCR1- Each “critical” quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition

EXCR2- Each “critical” requirement must be covered by at least one test condition

The following are the “critical” requirements of the application:

REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time

REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages

(2-bottles, 6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)

REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1

bottle and no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if

the user selects a valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package

size)

REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message “Invalid number of bottles” if

an invalid number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than

the package size)

REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit

cards (Visa, MasterCard, American Express)

REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message “Invalid credit card” if invalid

credit card data are given by the user

The following is the unique “critical” quality risk item that has been identified:

CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field

designed to get the number of bottles from the user

Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been

identified.

TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes 

TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order

TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of

bottles from the user

What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the

EXCR1 and EXCR2 exit criteria?

K3 2 credits

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Answer: A

Cisco 300-160 Dumps PDF - 100% Success with Valid Q&A | Real Exam Dumps

 Question: 1

You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.

Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?

A. FCoE storage

B. server

C. FCoE uplink

D. uplink

Answer: C

Explanation:

Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect

Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports in a fixed port module that you can configure as either

server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. These ports are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco

UCS instance until you configure them. You can add expansion modules to increase the number of

uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre Channel ports to the fabric

interconnect.

You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port.

Each fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:

Server Ports

Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the

servers.

You can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include

server ports.

Uplink Ethernet Ports

Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of

the network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports.

By default, Ethernet ports are unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the

following ways:

•Server

•Uplink

•FCoE

•Appliance

You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.

Uplink Fibre Channel Ports

Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of

the network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports.

By default, Fibre Channel ports are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre

Channel storage ports. This is useful in cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a DirectAttached Storage (DAS) device.

You can only configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does

not include uplink Fibre Channel ports

Question: 2

Which statement accurately describes the configuration requirements for disjoint Layer 2 networks

on Cisco UCS?

A. The Cisco UCS fabric Interconnect must be in switch mode.

B. The VLAN IDs must overlap in both Layer 2 domains.

C. All of the uplinks most be in one port channel to keep all of the ports active.

D. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect must be in end-host motto.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Which two options are reasons to use Layer 3 routing to segment a data center instead of Layer 2

switching? (Choose two)

A. Simply design

B. Ease of routing protocol configuration

bLimit the scope of broadcast flooding

D. Cost

E. Limit the scope of spanning Tree Protocol

Answer: C, E

Question: 4

Which two options represent an access layer solution designed to accelerate server virtualization,

that is managed just like other network devices in the data center? (Choose two)

A. MPIO

B. host vPC

C. VEM

D. VSS

E. VSM

Answer: C, E

Explanation:

When server virtualization is implemented, the edge of the network is pushed from the traditional

location in the network access layer, implemented in physical switches, to the virtual network access

layer that is implemented in software in the server hypervisor. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch is an

intelligent virtual network access layer switch that runs Cisco NX-OS Software, Cisco's data center

operating system that runs on all Cisco data center products. Operating inside the Microsoft Hyper-V

hypervisor, the Cisco Nexus 1000V supports Cisco Virtual Network Link (VN-Link) server virtualization

technology to provide:

•Policy-based virtual machine connectivity

•Mobile virtual machine security and network policy

•Nondisruptive operating model for your server virtualization and networking teams

When server virtualization is implemented in the data center, servers and virtual

machines are not managed the same way as physical servers. Server virtualization is treated as a

special deployment, leading to longer deployment time, with more coordination needed among

server, network, storage, and security administrators. With the Cisco Nexus 1000V, you have a

consistent networking feature set and configuration and provisioning model for both the physical

and the virtual networks. Virtual machine networks can use the same network configuration,

security policy, diagnostic tools, and operating models as physical server deployments that are

connected to physical switches. This unified approach provides faster deployment and

troubleshooting and makes the administration of virtualization environments essentially the same as

for nonvirtualized deployments.

Developed in close collaboration with Microsoft, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch is certified by

Microsoft and integrates with Microsoft Windows Server and Microsoft System Center Virtual

Machine Manager (SCVMM). You can use the Cisco Nexus 1000V to manage your virtual machine

connectivity with confidence in the integrity of the server virtualization infrastructure.

Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch Components

Cisco Nexus 1000V Switches have two main components:

•Virtual supervisor module (VSM)

•Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)

The VSM provides the switch control and management plane, and the VEM provides the data plane

for the switch (Figure 1). The VSM can run as a virtual machine on any Microsoft Hyper-V host or as a

virtual service node on the Cisco Nexus 1010 and 1110. The VEM runs as a plug-in (extension) to the

Microsoft Hyper-V switch in the hypervisor kernel, providing switching between virtual machines.

Cisco Nexus 1000V sees the VSMs and VEMs as modules. In the current release, a single VSM can

manage up to 64 VEMs. The VSMs are always associated with slot numbers 1 and 2 in the virtual

chassis. The VEMs are sequentially assigned to slots 3 through 66 based on the order in which their

respective hosts were added to the Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch.

Question: 5

Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? (Choose two)

A. Cisco MDS 9148S Series

B. Cisco MDS 9222i series

C. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series

D. Cisco nexus 7010 series

E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP series

Answer: C , D 

Get Docker DCA PDF Dumps for Simple Good results: Real Exam Dumps

 Question: 1

Which of the following commands wifi automatically create a volume when a container is started?

A. 'docker container run --name nginxtest --volumes=/app nginx'

B. 'docker container run --name nginxtest -v /app:mount nginx'

C. 'docker container run --name nginxtest --volumes myvol:/app:new nginx'

D. 'docker container run --name nginxtest -v myvol:/app nginx'

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which one of the following commands will show a list of volumes for a specific container?

A. 'docker container logs nginx --volumes'

B. 'docker container inspect nginx'

C. 'docker volume inspect nginx'

D. 'docker volume logs nginx --containers'

Answer: B

Question: 3

Which of the following constitutes a production-ready devicemapper configuration for the Docker

engine?

A. Create a volume group in devicemapper and utilize the '--dm.thinpooldev' Docker daemon

option, specifying the volume group

B. Format a partition with xfs and mount it at '/var/lib/docker'

C. Utilize the '--storage-opt dm.directlvm_device' Docker daemon option, specifying a block

device

D. Nothing, devicemapper comes ready for production usage out of the box

Answer: C

Question: 4

Which one of the following commands will result in the volume being removed automatically once

the container has exited?

A. 'docker run --del -v /foo busybox'

B. 'docker run --read-only -v /foo busybox'

C. 'docker run --rm -v /foo busybox'

D. 'docker run --remove -v /foo busybox'

Answer: C

Question: 5

A container named "analytics" that stores results in a volume called "data" was created.

docker run -d --name=analytics -v data:/data app1 How are the results accessed in "data" with another container called "app2"?

A. docker run -d --name=reports --volume=data app2

B. docker run -d --name=reports --volumes-from=analytics app2

C. docker run -d --name=reports --volume=app1 app2

D. docker run -d --name=reports --mount=app1 app2

Answer: B

Valid Cisco Dumps Questions Answers ~ 100% Effective Results Whit Real Exam Dumps

 Question: 1

Cisco TrustSec software-defined segmentation is simpler to enable than VLAN-based segmentation.

Which of the following is not a feature of TrustSec?

A. Diversified compliance

B. Apply policies across the network

C. Lower operational expenses

D. Reduce risks

Answer: A

Question: 2

AMP for endpoints decreases time to detection. What is Cisco's security time to detection?

A. 8 hours or less

B. 7 hours or less

C. 10 hours or less

D. 6 hours or less

Answer: D

Question: 3

The Cisco enterprise routing portfolio delivers an uncompromised experience across which 4 areas?

A. Cloud, Branch, WAN and Firewalls

B. Cloud, LAN, WAN and Data Centre

C. Branch, Cloud, Data Centre and WAN

D. Data Centre, Cloud, Branch and LAN

Answer: C

Explanation:

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/routers/4000-series-integrated-services

routers-isr/enterprise-routing-portfolio-poster.pdf

Question: 4

What does Cisco call the intelligent, closed-loop, and self-optimizing system built on Cisco DNA?

A. The Assured Network

B. The Automated Network

C. The Encryption Initiative

D. The Network Intuitive

Answer: B

Question: 5

Cisco converged infrastructure simplifies and speeds up infrastructure deployment with integrated

and hyperconverged systems. Which of the following is not one of the solutions?

A. FlashStack

B. Hyperflex systems

C. VirtualStack

D. FlexPod

Answer: C 

Pass Salesforce Exam with 100% Passing Assurance | Real Exam Dumps

 Question: 1

Universal Containers sells their subscription products only in whole months. The Users at Universal

Containers are sometimes entering values into Start Date and End Date and leaving Subscription

Term blank. They are finding that subscription pricing is not working as they would expect because

the dates they are choosing do not equate to exact months. This leads to pricing that may be a few

cents or even a few dollars off. The Admin would like to find a solution that does not require forcing

the users to use Subscription Term. What should be done so that the pricing is rounded to the

expected value?

A. In the package settings, set Subscription Prorate Precision to Monthly.

B. On the Quote object, set the Subscription Prorate Precision field to Monthly.

C. Create a Price Rule which rounds the Prorate Multiplier to the nearest whole value.

D. Create a Price Rule that takes the user-entered date and calculates a rounded Term.

Answer: A

Question: 2

Universal Containers (UC) wants to use an Option Constraint in a bundle that requires a user to sell

Product Option X before they can sell Product Option Y. Sales has indicated that this would be too

restrictive, and they want to be able to select Product Option Y as long as Product Option X is an

existing asset on the account. UC has approved this change. What should the Admin do to address

this change?

A. List accounts with assets in the “Option Constraint Group” field.

B. Look up the account with the assets on the “Account” field.

C. Mark the “Check Prior Purchases” checkbox as TRUE.

D. Use a Product Rule instead of an Option Constraint.

Answer: C

Question: 3

Universal Containers (UC) wants to set up four separate Template Sections. UC also wants each of

these sections to render on its own page, no matter if the text field fills an entire page or not. Which

two will determine how the page breaks?

A. Under the Page Break picklist, select the After option on each of the first three Template Sections.

B. Under the Keep with Previous picklist, select the Always option on each of the Template Sections.

C. Under the Keep Separate picklist, select the Always option on each of the Template Sections.

D. Under the Page Break picklist, select the Before option on each of the last three Template

Answer: AD

Question: 4

Universal Containers wants to apply an additional discount of 15% to the Quote when Payment

Frequency is Monthly or Bi-Weekly and Product A is added or User Count greater than 25 is defined.

What is the correct Price Rule Setup?

A. One Price Rule with Conditions Met set to Custom, three Price Conditions, and one Price Action.

B. Four Price Rules with Conditions Met set to All, one Price Condition each and one Price Action

each.

C. One Price Rule with Conditions Met set to All, four Price Conditions, and one Price Action.

D. Two Price Rules with Conditions Met set to All, one Price Condition on one rule and two on the

other, and one Price Action each.

Answer: A

Question: 5

Universal Containers has a bundle that has a large number of Product Options. They do not want all

of the options available to be visible on the configuration by default. They want the User to click a

button within each Feature to see which Product Options are available to be selected, and then have

the User select Product Options from that page. How should the Admin set up the bundle for the

display to work this way?

A. Select the Required checkbox on each Product Option in the Bundle.

B. Select the Hidden checkbox on the Bundled Product record.

C. Select Add as the Option Selection Method on the Bundle product.

D. Select Click as the Option Selection Method on the Bundle product.

Answer: C 

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 Question: 1

Which is the main differentiator for VMware vSAN when compared to a Virtual Storage Appliance (VSA)?

A. VMware vSAN is integrated into the ESXi Kernel.

B. VMware vSAN can be implemented with external storage.

C. VMware vSAN is implemented as virtual Appliance.

D. A VSA is tightly integrated with VMkernel.

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which two statements about VMware Horizon View Administrator are true? (Choose two.)

A. VM ware Horizon View Administrator can be installed on a vCenter Server that manages virtual

machines.

B. VMware Horizon View Administrator is installed with the Horizon View Connection Server.

C. VMware Horizon View Administrator is a software service that acts as a broker for client connections.

D. VMware Horizon View Administrator allows administrators to manage Horizon View Connection

Server instances from anywhere without having to install an application on their local computers.

Answer: B,D

Question: 3

Which four application services are delivered by VMware Horizon 7? (Choose four.)

A. Packaged apps with VMware ThinApp

B. Virtualized apps from Citrix

C. SaaS apps

D. Helpdesk ticketing system

E. RDS hosted apps

F. Anti-virus services

Answer: A,B,C,E

Question: 4

Which feature of VMware vSphere will automate the process of migrating virtual machines to fewer

hosts during times of low workloads?

A. FT

B. EVC

C. DPM

D. HA

Answer: C

Question: 5

Which two statements are true for vRealize Business for Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. It provides costing for non-vSphere workload by directly integrating with them.

B. It provides public cloud costing, consumption analysis, and pricing.

C. It collects performance data through the agents that are deployed in the cloud workloads.

D. It provides costing for native services hosted on AWS and Azure cloud.

E. It provides Automatic private cloud metering, costing, and pricing.

Answer: B, E

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 Question: 1

What relationship should Maintenance and Reliability Teams have with customers

and suppliers for optimum effectiveness?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Purchasing should be the only communicators with suppliers

B. Management should be the only communicators with customers and suppliers

C. Team members should be involved in communicating with customers and

suppliers

D. Sales should be the only department communicating with customers.

Answer: C

Question: 2

Which list of elements below are the most important to be evaluated and coordinated during the

planning phase of a major shutdown of your operating area (i.e. annual turnaround)?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Historical turnaround maintenance days, operations desired work list, prior turnaround work lists

B. Available turnaround budget, equipment condition, budgeted down-days

C. Condition and remaining life of critical equipment, value of production throughput, labor and

materials availability and cost

D. Heavy lifting equipment availability, labor cost and availability, operations requested down- days

Answer: A

Question: 3

What is the statistical average and the population standard deviation of the following series of

numbers? 1.30, 1.25, 1.50, 1.12, 1.35, 1.38

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Statistical average = 1.32; standard deviation= 0.128

B. Statistical average = 1.50; standard deviation= 0.25

C. Statistical average = 1.32; standard deviation= 1.50

D. Statistical average = 0.128: standard deviation= 1.32

Answer: A

Question: 4

What is the relationship between leading indicator metrics and lagging indicator metrics in the field of

Maintenance and Reliability?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Lagging indicators are measures that reflect accomplishment of goals, while leading indicators are

measures of what must be done to improve results.

B. Leading indicators are measures thatreflect accomplishment of goalswhile lagging indicators are

measures of what must be done to improve results.

C. Leading indicators are low level measures that reflect accomplishment of goals, while lagging

indicators are measures of what must be done to improve results.

D. Leading indicators are used by management, while lagging indicators are used by personnel on the

shop floor.

Answer: B

Question: 5

As the maintenance manager at a new plant (facility) you are developing the maintenance workforce

strategy for start-up. Select the best workforce attributes for maximum effectiveness, assuming that

unit labor costs are equal?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. An annual bid and selection of a maintenance labor contractor is performed, using unitcosting of

tasks normally required.

B. A managing contractor is brought on site to handle all aspects and provision of maintenance labor.

C. Multi skilled mechanical crafts (trades) and instrument electrical crafts (trades) are hired and

developed.

D. Operations performing minor maintenance and company multi-skilled technicians performing

complex maintenance tasks.

Answer: D

Dumps Questions Answers ~ 100% Effective Results Whit Real Exam Dumps

 Question: 1

Which two statements about 802.10 tunneling are true? (Choose two.)

A. It requires a system MTU of at least 1504 bytes.

B. The default configuration sends Cisco Discovery Protocol, STP: and VTP information.

C. Traffic that traverses the tunnel is encrypted.

D. It is supported on private VLAN ports.

E. MAC-based QoS and UDLD are supported on tunnel ports.

F. Its maximum allowable system MTU is 1546 bytes.

Answer: A, E 

Question: 2

Which protocol allows connections made by an NBMA network to dynamically learn connected

address?

A.PPP

B. NHRP

C. HDLC

D. POP

Answer: B

Question: 3

Which way to influence path selection with EIGRP is preferred?

A. changing the bandwidth, because it does not have any impact on other router features.

B. changing the bandwidth, because that is what Cisco recommends.

C. changing the bandwidth, because ii must be done only on one interface along the path.

D. changing the delay, even if it must be done on multiple interfaces

Answer: D

Question: 4

In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge. the root port, and the designated port(s) elected?

A. Listening

B. Forwarding

C. Learning

D. Disabled

E. Blocking

Answer: A

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 Question: 1

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

When you are implementing a software as a service (SaaS) solution, you are responsible for configuring

high availability.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is

needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.

B. defining scalability rules

C. installing the SaaS solution

D. configuring the SaaS solution

Answer: D

Question: 2

You have an on-premises network that contains several servers.

You plan to migrate all the servers to Azure.

You need to recommend a solution to ensure that some of the servers are available if a single Azure

data center goes offline for an extended period.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. fault tolerance

B. elasticity

C. scalability

D. low latency

Answer: A

Question: 3

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

An organization that hosts its infrastructure in a private cloud can decommission its data center.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is

needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.

B. in a hybrid cloud

C. in the public cloud

D. on a Hyper-V host

Answer: C

Question: 4

What are two characteristics of the public cloud? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. dedicated hardware

B. unsecured connections

C. limited storage

D. metered pricing

E. self-service management

Answer: D, E 

Get Salesforce CRT-251 PDF Dumps for Simple Good results: Real Exam Dumps

 Question: 1

Universal Containers (UC) created a new mobile app that enables customers to place orders and

track fulfillment. UC wants to quickly embed customer service into the new mobile app. Which two

features should be added to meet this requirement? Choose 2 answers

A. Salesforce Knowledgebase

B. Chatter Groups

C. Field Service Lightning

D. Service Cloud SOS

Answer: C, D

Question: 2

Universal Containers runs a support operation with multiple call centers. The Support Manager

wants to measure first-call resolution by call center location, agent, and calendar month.

Which reporting solution should the Consultant recommend?

A. Create a list view report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and

first-call resolution.

B. Create a reporting snapshot that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month,

and first-call resolution.

C. Create a joined report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and firstcall

resolution.

D. Create a matrix report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and firstcall

resolution.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Universal Containers has a single contact center that handles all service requests including chat,

Cases, and web form submissions. It is important that Reps are assigned work evenly so that all

requests are handled in the order they are received.

How would a Consultant address this requirement?

A. Configure Case Assignment Rules

B. Configure Omni-Channel with Most Available Routing

C. Configure Live Agent Skills-based Routing

D. Configure Omni-Channel with Least Active Routing

Answer: B

Question: 4

The Contact Center at Universal Containers wants to increase its profit margins by promoting call

deflection within Service Cloud.

Which two solutions should a Consultant recommend? Choose 2 answers

A. Knowledge Base

B. Customer Community

C. Automatic Call Distribution

D. Service Cloud Console

Answer: A, B

Question: 5

Support agents need to verify that customers are eligible to receive customer support before they

can update the Which two objects are used to verify that a customer is entitled to receive support?

Choose 2 answers

A. Contacts

B. Products

C. Service contracts

D. Case history

Answer: A, C 

Salesforce CRT-261 Dumps - 100% Success with Valid

 Question: 1

Universal Containers (UC) created a new mobile app that enables customers to place orders and track

fulfillment. UC wants to quickly embed customer service into the new mobile app. Which two

features should be added to meet this requirement? Choose 2 answers

A. Salesforce Knowledgebase

B. Chatter Groups

C. Field Service Lightning

D. Service Cloud SOS

Answer: C, D

Question: 2

Universal Containers runs a support operation with multiple call centers. The Support Manager wants to

measure first-call resolution by call center location, agent, and calendar month.

Which reporting solution should the Consultant recommend?

A. Create a list view report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and firstcall resolution.

B. Create a reporting snapshot that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and

first-call resolution.

C. Create a joined report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and first-call

resolution.

D. Create a matrix report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and firstcall resolution.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Universal Containers has a single contact center that handles all service requests including chat, Cases,

and web form submissions. It is important that Reps are assigned work evenly so that all requests are

handled in the order they are received.

How would a Consultant address this requirement?

A. Configure Case Assignment Rules

B. Configure Omni-Channel with Most Available Routing

C. Configure Live Agent Skills-based Routing

D. Configure Omni-Channel with Least Active Routing

Answer: B

Question: 4

The Contact Center at Universal Containers wants to increase its profit margins by promoting call

deflection within Service Cloud.

Which two solutions should a Consultant recommend? Choose 2 answers

A. Knowledge Base

B. Customer Community

C. Automatic Call Distribution

D. Service Cloud Console

Answer: A, B

Question: 5

Support agents need to verify that customers are eligible to receive customer support before they can

update the

Which two objects are used to verify that a customer is entitled to receive support? Choose 2 answers

A. Contacts

B. Products

C. Service contracts

D. Case history

Answer: A, C 

Salesforce CRT-271 Dumps PDF - 100% Success with Valid Q&A | Real Exam Dumps

 Question: 1

Universal Container's Community Manager wants to better measure the Community adoption and

engagement. What is the recommended approach?

A. Use Google Analytics to generate the adoption report

B. Install the Salesforce Community Management AppExchange package

C. Install the Wave dashboards for Communities

D. Use Data Loader to download the user data to generate a pivot table in Excel

Answer: B

Question: 2

Universal Containers is launching a Community to provide a self-help Channel to their customers and

partners. Customers and partners will search for articles, participate in discussions, and raise cases.

Partners will be able to raise cases for their customers, but will NOT need channel sales capabilities.

Which license should a Salesforce Admin use for the partner users?

A. Partner Community Plus License

B. Service Cloud License

C. Support Community License

D. Customer Community Plus License

Answer: D

Question: 3

Universal Containers adds e -commerce capability to its Community built on the Napili template. They

track customer shipments in a Salesforce custom object. How should the Salesforce Admin expose

customer shipment data in Community Builder?

A. Create an object page associated to the Shipment object

B. Create a standard page associated to the Shipment object

C. Clone an object page and associate it to the Shipment object

D. Clone a standard page and associate it he Shipment object

Answer: B

Question: 4

A Salesforce ISV partner is creating a Lightning Bolt Solution for a healthcare use case. What should the

Community Cloud consultant use to distribute the Lightning Bolt solution?

A. Managed Package

B. Metadata API

C. Change Set

D. Unmanaged Package

Answer: A

Question: 5

niversal Containers (UC) wants Lightning Experience enabled employees who have Salesforce user

licences to access a Community. The employee profiles have been added to the Community

membership. How should the Community Cloud Consultant educate employees on how to access the

Community?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Recommend employees use a separate username for Community access

B. Advise employees to use the "Login in as" functionality

C. Direct employees to the App Launcher

D. Direct employees to the global header

Answer: C 

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 Question: 1

What type of field can be used to filter a Report Chart that has been added to a Page Layout?

A. Name Field

B. Formula Field

C. Matching ID Field

D. Standard Field

Answer: C

Question: 2

Which rule can be configured for the Opportunity object? Choose 2 answers

A. Escalation Rule

B. Workflow Rule

C. Validation Rule

D. Assignment Rule

Answer: B, C

Question: 3

Universal Containers wants to standardize their business logic. They want to ensure that the

workflow order is guaranteed to be the same each time. Which feature can be used to accomplish

this? Choose 2 answers.

A. Lightning Process Builder

B. Workflow

C. Chatter Actions

D. Visual Workflow

Answer: A, D

Question: 4

What is a true statement in regards to managing access to reports and dashboards? Choose 2

answers

A. Users with the “Manage Public Reports” permission can organize reports by creating custom

report folders and sending invitations to users to access them.

B. Users must have certain permissions to access public, hidden, or shared folder.

C. Users with the “Manage Public Reports” and “Create and Customize Reports” permissions can

create custom reports that all users can view.

D. Users that want to grant access to personal folders can manually share a personal folder with a

user or public group.

Answer: A, C

Question: 5

Universal Containers would like to embed a chart of all related Opportunities, by stage, on the

Account detail page. Which type of report should the App Builder create to add to the Account page

layout?

A. A summary report on the Opportunity object.

B. A summary report on the Account object.

C. A tabular report on the Account object.

D. A tabular report on the Opportunity object.

Answer: A 

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 Question #:1

Scan results identify critical Apache vulnerabilities on a company’s web servers. A security analyst believes

many of these results are false positives because the web environment mostly consists of Windows servers.

Which of the following is the BEST method of verifying the scan results?

A. Run a service discovery scan on the identified servers.

B. Refer to the identified servers in the asset inventory.

C. Perform a top-ports scan against the identified servers.

D. Review logs of each host in the SIEM.

Answer: A

Question #:2

A cybersecurity analyst has several log files to review. Instead of using grep and cat commands, the analyst

decides to find a better approach to analyze the logs. Given a list of tools, which of the following would

provide a more efficient way for the analyst to conduct a timeline analysis, do keyword searches, and output a

report?

A. Kali

B. Splunk

C. Syslog

D. OSSIM

Answer: B

Question #:3

Three similar production servers underwent a vulnerability scan. The scan results revealed that the three

servers had two different vulnerabilities rated “Critical”.

The administrator observed the following about the three servers:

The servers are not accessible by the Internet

AV programs indicate the servers have had malware as recently as two weeks ago

The SIEM shows unusual traffic in the last 20 days

Integrity validation of system files indicates unauthorized modifications

Which of the following assessments is valid and what is the most appropriate NEXT step? (Select TWO).

A. Servers may have been built inconsistently

B. Servers may be generating false positives via the SIEM

C. Servers may have been tampered with

D. Activate the incident response plan

E. Immediately rebuild servers from known good configurations

F. Schedule recurring vulnerability scans on the servers

Answer: C D

Question #:4

A company invested ten percent of its entire annual budget in security technologies. The Chief Information

Officer (CIO) is convinced that, without this investment, the company will risk being the next victim of the

same cyber attack its competitor experienced three months ago. However, despite this investment, users are

sharing their usernames and passwords with their coworkers to get their jobs done. Which of the following

will eliminate the risk introduced by this practice?

A. Invest in and implement a solution to ensure non-repudiation

B. Force a daily password change

C. Send an email asking users not to share their credentials

D. Run a report on all users sharing their credentials and alert their managers of further actions

Answer: C

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 Question: 1

Which of the following option is not a part of The Web Intelligence Query Process?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Run the query

B. Launch panel to generate data

C. SQL is executed to extract data

D. Report is displayed

Answer: B

Question: 2

You want to force the calculation context of a variable in a table so that its values do not change when a

dimension is added to the table. Which of the following statements is correct?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. You include the dimension using the input context.

B. You exclude the dimension using the input context.

C. You include the dimension using the output context.

D. You exclude the dimension using the output context.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Which two methods can you use to define document properties?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Click the report tab, select "Document Properties" and enter the required information.

B. Right-click the report tab, select "Document Properties" and enter the required information.

C. Right-click a blank space on the report page, select "Document Properties" and enter the required

information.

D. In the Properties tab of the Report Manager, select "Document Properties" and enter the required

information.

Answer: BC

Question: 4

Which four authentication methods are available for Web intelligence Rich Client?

There are 4 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. AD

B. NT

C. LDAP

D. Vintella

E. Kerberos

F. Enterprise

Answer: ABCF

Question: 5

Which Report Manager tab should you use to add a free-standing cell to a BusinessObjects Web

Intelligence 4.0 document (WID)?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Map

B. Data

C. Template

D. Properties

Answer: C

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 Question: 1

Which system provide the capabilities to enable customized registration and login options, and to

manage user profile and consent? (Choose the correct option)

A. Advantages of third-party vendors

B. SAP Customer Data Cloud

C. Registration

B.  Application service providers

Answer: B

Question: 2

Which of the sets available in SAP Customer Data Cloud to be used in SAP Commerce to enable you

to connect with your website and app users, and engage with your customers? (Choose the correct

option)

A. Registration Screen

B. Login screen

C. Housing processes

D. Pace report

Answer: A, B

Question: 3

What does helps you gather critical information about your users, store that information securely

and leverage it for an enhanced customer experience? (Choose the correct option)

A. Affiliate revenue

B. RaaS

C. Room block

D. Outlet history

Answer: B

Question: 4

When the user profile is created in SAP Customer Data Cloud and then in SAP Commerce, with name,

email, and SAP Customer Data Cloud UID? (Choose the correct option)

A. Direct - option for housing reservations

B. Once the customer registers on the storefront

C. Advantages of direct - option for housing reservations

D. Limitations of direct - option for housing reservations

Answer: B

Question: 5

Who does provide the capabilities for customer identity and access management ?

A. Registration-as-a-Service (RaaS)

B. Direct with group rate - option for housing reservations

C. Advantages of direct with group rate

D. Limitations of direct with group rate

Answer: A 

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 Question: 1

Application users report that a query sometimes runs much slower than usual. You suspect that the high

system load is slowing down the query execution

Where can you review the overall system workload when a query is executed?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. kernel trace

B. early watch alert

C. SQL trace

D. SAP Hana studio

Answer: AC

Question: 2

You execute an authorization trace in the SAP HANA studio. Where can you review the outcome?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. In the result screen of the trace configuration.

B. In the indexserver trace diagnosis file.

C. In the authorization dependency viewer.

D. In the monitoring view M_SERVICE_TRACES

Answer: B

Question: 3

In the SAP HANA studio, in which tab can you find information about the performance of queries?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Alerts

B. Diagnosis Files

C. System Information

D. Trace Configuration

Answer: B 

Question: 4

What services must be configured and running on the SAP Hana server to monitor the SAP Hana

instance in SAP Solution manager?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. preprocessor service

B. SAP SMD agent

C. SAP host agent

D. compile service

Answer: BC

Question: 5

What information is shown on the overview tab of the administration console in the SAP Hana studio?

There are 3 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. operational status

B. Linux kernel version

C. system parameters

D. distributed system

E. memory usage of the services

Answer: ABD 

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 Question: 1

Which of the following Technical Deployment Option has single application runs in a single schema, and

in a single SAP HANA database as part of an SAP HANA system?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Single Application on One System (SCOS)

B. Multiple Components on one Database (MCOD)

C. SAP HANA with Virtualization

D. Technical Co-Deployment

Answer: A

Question: 2

You are setting up a disaster recovery system using system replication. You want the transaction

processing of the primary system to be suspended if the network to the secondary system fails.

What log replication mode must you use?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. async

B. full sync

C. syncmem

D. sync

Answer: B

Question: 3

When connected to the SAP HANA database, which hdbsql command displays general information about

the database?

Choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. \di

B. \s

C. \c

D. \a

Answer: B

Question: 4

Which steps can be combined in a DMO procedure, targeting an AS ABAP 7.50 based SAP system?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Performing an SAP software update

B. Migrating to a target database, e.g. SAP HANA

C. Performing a Unicode conversion

D. Performing a database upgrade of the source database

Answer: AB

Question: 5

You receive a new system from your hardware partner with SAP HANA 2.0 multitenant database

containers preinstalled.

What is a prerequisite to guarantee secure encryption of the data volumes?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Change the generated SSFS master key for the whole database instance.

B. Change the generated password of the SYSTEM user.

C. Update the connection information stored in the hdbuserstore.

D. Regenerate the encryption root keys for the internal application encryption.

Answer: A 

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 Question: 1

Which of the following tools can you use to load data into SAP HANAfrom SAP DataSource extractors?

A. SAP Landscape Transformation Server

B. SAP Sybase Replication Server

C. SAP Direct Extractor Connection

D. SAP Data Services

Answer: C, D

Question: 2

Which of the following must you do in order to use SAP BusinessObjects Explorer on SAP HANA data?

A. Create an information model.

B. Create a delivery unit.

C. Create an information space.

D. Create a business layer.

Answer: A, C

Question: 3

Which of the following steps do you have to execute to import models from one SAP HANA system

(system1) to another SAP HANA system (system2)?

A. Create a schema on system2

B. Import the models into system2

C. Export the models from system1

D. Create a delivery unit on system1

E. Create a delivery unit on system2

Answer: B, C, D

Question: 4

Which of the following are functions of the DB trigger within SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)?

A. Include only relevant tables for DB recording.

B. Record relevant changes in logging tables.

C. Ensure that replicated changes are kept within the logging tables.

D. Decluster table classes into a transparent format.

Answer: A, B

Question: 5

Which technologies use trigger-based replication?

A. Near Zero Downtime

B. Test Data Migration Server (TDMS)

C. ABAP extractors

D. Standard SQL database replication

Answer: A, B

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 Question: 1

Which objects can you use to assign payment approval patterns in customizing?

A. Currency and amount limit

B. Account type and company code

C. Currency and account type

D. Company code and amount limit

Answer: B

Question: 2

Which of the following file types are supported by default when you use SAP Multi-Bank Connectivity? 3

A. Bank statement files

B. SWIFT correspondence acknowledgement files

C. SWIFT correspondence files

D. SWIFT payment files

E. SWIFT payment status files

Answer: A, D, E

Question: 3

You are capturing the settings for new limit types in Credit Risk Analyzer. What do you define using the Define Limit Types configuration activity? 2

A. Limit transfer

B. Limit characteristic assignment

C. Determination procedure

D. Limit amount

Answer: B, C

Question: 4

Which of the component is a subarea of the Treasury Management solution area ?

A. Treasury and Risk Management component

B. In SAP HANA

C. Online Sourcing Functionality

D. Competitive Bidding

Answer: A

Question: 5

What can either be on providing an internal service for the affiliated group companies ?

A. Request for Proposals

B. SAP HANA

C. Approval tasks

D. Emphasis

Answer: D